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시험 번호/코드: HP0-P10

시험 이름: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)

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NO.1 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.5 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.9 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.10 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.13 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.14 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.16 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.18 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.22 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.23 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.27 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.28 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.30 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-M16

시험 이름: HP (HP Quick Test Professional 9.2 Software)

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NO.1 When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Answer: B

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NO.3 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must
you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: D

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NO.5 In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: B

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NO.6 What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table
during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Answer: D

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NO.10 After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output
parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: C

HP   HP0-M16기출문제   HP0-M16   HP0-M16

IT업계의 치열한 경쟁속에 살아 남으려면 자신의 능력을 증명하여야 합니다. 국제승인을 받는 IT인증자격증을 많이 취득하시면 취직이든 승진이든 이직이든 모든 면에서 이득을 볼수 있습니다. 최근 HP인증 HP0-M16시험에 도전하는 분이 많은데 ITExamDump에서 HP인증 HP0-M16시험에 대비한 가장 최신버전 덤프공부가이드를 제공해드립니다.

HP HP0-S11 시험문제

HP인증 HP0-S11시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득하여 승진이나 이직을 꿈구고 있는 분이신가요? 이 글을 읽게 된다면HP인증 HP0-S11시험패스를 위해 공부자료를 마련하고 싶은 마음이 크다는것을 알고 있어 시장에서 가장 저렴하고 가장 최신버전의 HP인증 HP0-S11덤프자료를 강추해드립니다. 높은 시험패스율을 자랑하고 있는HP인증 HP0-S11덤프는 여러분이 승진으로 향해 달리는 길에 날개를 펼쳐드립니다.자격증을 하루 빨리 취득하여 승진꿈을 이루세요.

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-S11

시험 이름: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)

IT업계에 종사하는 분이 점점 많아지고 있는 지금 IT인증자격증은 필수품으로 되었습니다. IT인사들의 부담을 덜어드리기 위해ITExamDump는HP인증 HP0-S11인증시험에 대비한 고품질 덤프를 연구제작하였습니다. HP인증 HP0-S11시험을 준비하려면 많은 정력을 기울여야 하는데 회사의 야근에 시달리면서 시험공부까지 하려면 스트레스가 이만저만이 아니겠죠. ITExamDump 덤프를 구매하시면 이제 그런 고민은 끝입니다. 덤프에 있는 내용만 공부하시면 IT인증자격증 취득은 한방에 가능합니다.

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NO.1 By default with any addition pack installed, which file formats are available for reports generated from
HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select three.)
A..txt
B..pdf
C..xml
D..prn
E..csv
F..html
WArialZX
ANSWER: CEF

HP자격증   HP0-S11자료   HP0-S11자격증

NO.2 You need to install an MSA50 enclosure in an HP rack but the enclosure unit is not available at the
planned installation time. Therefore, you need to allocate the required space in the rack and plan the
installation once the enclosure is available.
What is the EIA unit height of the MSA50 enclosure?
A.1U
B.2U
C.3U
D.4U
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

HP기출문제   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 pdf   HP0-S11자격증

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
From the screen shown, click the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
The ACU shows the Smart Array controller, but not the MSA1000 attached to the Linux server. The Linux
server can access and use the LUNs on the MSA1000.
What should you do to allow the ACU to configure the MSA1000?
A.Install the hpacucli package.
B.Install the cpqacuxe package.
C.Install the ProLiant Support Pack.
D.Install the ProLiant Integration Module
ANSWER:
C

NO.4 What is required to enable online spare memory on a ProLiant DL-series server?
A.All processor sockets must be populated and the spare VRM must be installed.
B.All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same size.
C.The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other banks.
D.ProLiant Essentials must be installed on the system where online spare memory will be enabled.
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S11덤프   HP0-S11   HP0-S11인증   HP0-S11

NO.5 Which ProLiant Essentials product uses Virus Throttle to prevent the spread of viruses and worms?
A.Intelligent Networking Pack
B.Insight Control Linux Edition
C.iLO Advanced Feature Pack
D.Performance Management Pack
ANSWER: A

HP   HP0-S11 dump   HP0-S11최신덤프

NO.6 Which advantage do AMD Opteron processors offer over Intel Pentium Xeon processors used in HP
ProLiant servers?
A.AMD Opteron processors use Burst Mode Memory technology.
B.AMD Opteron-based memory is connected to each processor via a South Bridge chip.
C.AMD Opteron-based system memory modules are controlled and managed by the processor they are
attached to.
D.AMD Opteron processors use the MemBus architecture that interconnects all installed processors and
memory modules.
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S11기출문제   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.7 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.HP Integrity NonStop
B.HP Serviceguard for Linux
C.Novell Netware Cluster Services
D.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
ANSWER: A

HP   HP0-S11 dumps   HP0-S11 dump

NO.8 A data center administrator wants to measure the BTU/hr generated by all the current ProLiant 380
G5 servers. The administrator wants to use this information to accommodate more servers without
making changes to the data center cooling system.
Which HP Essential product should the administrator use to accomplish this?
A.HP Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP Insight Control Environment for ProLiant ML/DL
E.HP Insight Control Environment for HP BladeSystem
ANSWER: A

HP덤프   HP0-S11덤프   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11자격증

NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which systems are currently not monitored or licensed for performance monitoring using HP Systems
Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A.server sgh70413xa
B.server sgh70413xb
C.server sgh70413wy
D.server home-ews3047277
ANSWER: BD

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 pdf   HP0-S11인증

NO.10 You have a few ProLiant servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 that have the Emergency
Management Services (EMS) enabled.
Using the Special Administration Console (SAC), which command limits the memory usage of a process?
A.k
B.r
C.m
D.lock
WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S11 dump   HP0-S11기출문제   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.11 Which parameters have an effect on the amount of time required to perform an online capacity
expansion? (Select two.)
A.logical drive size
B.amount of other I/O work the server is processing
C.amount of physical memory installed in the system
D.priority level of the rebuild operation set in the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
WArialZX
ANSWER: AB

HP   HP0-S11최신덤프   HP0-S11자료   HP0-S11

NO.12 Which software should be used to configure the write cache setting in the MSA1500cs?
A.Array Diagnostic Utility
B.Array Configuration Utility
C.Resource Partition Manager
D.Network Configuration Utility
WArialZX
ANSWER: B

HP pdf   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.13 In a Fibre Channel fabric network, which network service is responsible for registering and
maintaining a valid logical network address database that is used for LUN masking and zoning?
A.Time Services
B.CHAP Services
C.Name Server Services
D.Secured Fabric Services
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 Which ProLiant Essentials product erases the entire system during its installation process?
A.HP Insight Control Environment
B.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
C.HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
D.HP Insight Control Data Center Edition
ANSWER: B

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 dump

NO.15 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.Oracle RAC
B.HP Integrity NonStop
C.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
D.HP Serviceguard services on Linux Server
ANSWER: B

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11시험문제

NO.16 Which type of task allows you to update software and firmware of several ProLiant Servers using HP
Systems Insight Manager?
A.Control
B.Polling
C.Distribution
D.Management
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 After initial HP Systems Insight Manager v5.x discovery and type identification, a comprehensive data
collection is attempted on all newly discovered devices. It will the store the details in the database on the
Centralized Management Server (CMS).
Which protocols are used in this comprehensive data collection? (Select three.)
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Distributed Management Interface (DMI)
C.Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D.Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
ANSWER: BDE

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.18 Which types of migration can be performed by HP Virtualization Management Software? (Select
three.)
A.Virtual to Virtual migration
B.Virtual to Physical migration
C.Physical to Virtual migration
D.ProLiant to Integrity migration
E.Physical to ProLiant migration
WArialZX
ANSWER: ABC

HP   HP0-S11덤프   HP0-S11인증   HP0-S11시험문제

NO.19 Which HP servers use HyperTransport architecture? (Select two.)
A.BL480c
B.ML150
C.DL365
D.ML570
E.DL320
F.DL585
WArialZX
ANSWER: CF

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NO.20 Which ProLiant Essentials product monitors and graphs the air temperature as it enters a server?
A.HP Onboard Administrator
B.HP Insight Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP iLO Power Management Pack
ANSWER: B

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 dump   HP0-S11

NO.21 Which processor currently uses 64-bit x86 based architecture and HyperTransport technology?
A.AMD Athlon
B.Intel Itanium2
C.AMD Opteron
D.Intel Pentium IV
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S11시험문제   HP0-S11자격증   HP0-S11 dump   HP0-S11덤프

NO.22 Which HP server uses HyperTransport architecture?
A.BL20p
B.DL140
C.DL385
D.ML370
E.rx2620
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

HP자격증   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.23 Which address syntax is valid for iSCSI addressing?
A.iqn.0202.hpstorage.hp.com
B.fqdn.2007.03.iSCSI.hp.com
C.iqn.2006.02.com.hp:hpstorage
D.ieee.iSCSI.ifqdn.2006.03.com.hp:hpstorage
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11덤프

NO.24 Which HP Systems Insight Manager task enables the administrator to gather information from a newly
discovered network device?
A.polling
B.discovery
C.identification
D.data collection
ANSWER: D

HP자격증   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 pdf   HP0-S11   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.25 Your customer has an MSA30 set up in a single-bus configuration and wants to change it to a dual-bus
configuration.
How do you accomplish this?
A.It is not possible to configure the MSA30 in a dual-bus configuration.
B.You replace the single-port SCSI I/O module with a dual-port SCSI I/O module.
C.You set the Bus Configuration switch to dual-bus mode on the back of the MSA30 unit.
D.You reconfigure the properties of the MSA30 controller using Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
ANSWER: B

HP최신덤프   HP0-S11   HP0-S11

NO.26 You are performing capacity planning for an active/active cluster.
Which factors are most important for you to consider? (Select two.)
A.bandwidth of the cluster interconnect
B.cluster node processor requirements
C.memory requirements of each cluster node
D.maximum number of concurrent user connections
E.bandwidth between the cluster nodes and the shared storage
WArialZX
ANSWER: BC

HP자격증   HP0-S11 pdf   HP0-S11자료

NO.27 Which component license involves a communications protocol that provides direct transmission of
data from the memory of one computer to the memory of another with minimal demands on the host CPU?
A.Accelerated iSCSI Pack
B.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C.InfiniBand Teaming Networking Pack
D.RDMA Pack for Multifunction Gigabit Server Adapter
WArialZX
ANSWER: D

HP   HP0-S11   HP0-S11자격증   HP0-S11   HP0-S11인증

NO.28 A customer wants to order 20 ProLiant DL380 G5 Servers to be shipped to a field location with no IT
support. The servers should be already racked, cabled, and have an operating system loaded when they
are delivered to the field location.
Which HP service is best suited for this situation?
A.HP Factory Express
B.HP Consulting Services
C.HP Care Pack Installation Service
D.HP Care Pack Next Business Day hardware support
ANSWER: A

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer requires your assistance in designing the database server shown in the attached exhibit. The
database will have a large volume of writes to the log files and heavy read/write use of the data files.
Which RAID configuration would provide the best performance?
A.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 5
B.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
C.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 5
D.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
E.log files: RAID 6 (ADG)
ANSWER: C

HP인증   HP0-S11최신덤프   HP0-S11최신덤프   HP0-S11   HP0-S11 pdf

NO.30 Which technology in Ethernet switches ensures loop-free connectivity?
A.Spanning Tree Protocol
B.Spanning Topology Recovery
C.Uplink Trunk Blocking Protocol
D.Layer 2 Loop Broadcast Recovery
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-G11

시험 이름: HP (CCI Fundamentals for Solution Architects)

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NO.1 Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the
owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A

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NO.5 CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center
managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network
performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be
directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on
their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can
quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE

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NO.7 When comparing a traditional PC environment to a "dynamic" implementation of HP's CCI solution in
which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of
retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any
networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are
erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C

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NO.8 HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE

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NO.9 Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select
two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB

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NO.10 CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you
verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group
policy is properly redirecting the users' folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking
the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby
preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD

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NO.12 In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC?
(Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC

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NO.13 A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When
the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he
receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator
notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does
latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C

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NO.15 How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the
HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated
Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet
as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP
ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination
IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD

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NO.16 HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port
exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B

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NO.17 By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A

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NO.18 HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list?
(Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-A02

시험 이름: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)

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NO.1 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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NO.2 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.9 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.15 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.16 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-144

시험 이름: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)

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NO.1 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.4 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.7 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.8 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.10 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.13 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.16 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.17 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-918

시험 이름: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)

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NO.1 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.2 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.3 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.5 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.6 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.7 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.8 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.9 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.11 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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NO.13 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.14 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.15 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.16 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.17 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.18 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.19 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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NO.20 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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