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시험 번호/코드: DC0-200
시험 이름: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)
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NO.1 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

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NO.2 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.3 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

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NO.5 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

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NO.6 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

Dell   DC0-200덤프   DC0-200   DC0-200시험문제

NO.7 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

Dell시험문제   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200자료   DC0-200

NO.8 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

Dell자료   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200자격증

NO.11 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

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NO.15 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200자격증   DC0-200 dump

NO.16 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200 dumps   DC0-200

NO.17 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

Dell자료   DC0-200인증   DC0-200 dump

NO.18 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.19 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

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시험 번호/코드: PW0-105
시험 이름: CWNP (Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA))
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NO.1 Given:
Network users and IT personnel at a large machinery manufacturer have been discussing the potential
uses and benefits of implementing an indoor WLAN. The network administrator and network manager
have requested a meeting of senior management personnel to discuss a WLAN implementation before
taking any site survey or implementation steps. The first order of discussion in the meeting is corporate
policy concerning implementation and use of WLAN technology.
What specific topics are appropriate in this policy meeting? (Choose two)
A. Vendor hardware recommendations
B. Business justification
C. User productivity impact
D. Antenna types
E. Obtaining permits and zoning requirements
Answer: B,C

CWNP기출문제   PW0-105   PW0-105

NO.2 Given: You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a
wireless security seminar. The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from
potential intruders if you disabled the broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access
points not to respond to Probe Request frames that have a null SSID field.
Your manager suggests implementing these security practices. What response should you give to this
suggestion? (Choose two)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe
Response frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe
Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers' client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the
SSID cannot be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response
frames can be helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the
corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the
SSID by exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove
the SSID from association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Given:
ABC Company performs top-secret government contract work and has recently purchased an
802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their "NO WIRELESS" network security
policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. MAC Spoofing
C. Protocol Jamming
D. Eavesdropping
E. RF Jamming
Answer: D

CWNP   PW0-105   PW0-105   PW0-105최신덤프

NO.4 What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Answer: A,E

CWNP시험문제   PW0-105   PW0-105

NO.5 What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a
single access point? (Choose 2)
1. SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /
VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6
2. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type A
SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B
A. Multiple WLAN Profiles
B. Call Admission Control
C. Virtual Cell with SCA
D. Access Categories
E. User-based authentication
F. Dual-radio AP hardware
G. Integrated DHCP server
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 What statement best describes the manual RF site survey report?
A. It is a series of notes taken during the interview with the network manager and given to the site survey
project manager.
B. It is a one-page network inspection summary used to create a certificate of network compliance.
C. It contains the results from the RF coverage, capacity, and interference analysis.
D. It is an internal document used by the site surveying firm for network deployment, and is not usually
shown to the client.
E. It states the customer requirements, business justification, and a detailed budget for the WLAN.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Why is it recommended for a wireless network administrator to disable 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps data rates
on the WLAN infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. To improve capacity in the BSS
B. To reduce the size of the AP's effective service area
C. To prevent 802.11b devices from associating
D. To maximize the range of the highest data rates
E. To prevent VoWiFi multicast frames
F. To enable support for long preambles
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose
4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.9 ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment supporting four bands in the 5 GHz range
(UNII 1, UNII 2, UNII 2e, and UNII 3). DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory domain.
Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity.
Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi client devices will move back and forth
between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the user roams throughout the building. All APs have 2.4 and 5 GHz radios
enabled.
This "band hopping" behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable. What is the most likely cause
of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48
in UNII 1.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call
capacity and lower latency than 5 GHz.
C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it
moves through the network.
D. The client's band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85%
of client devices to 2.4 GHz.
Answer: C

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NO.10 During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their
supported data rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate
that will be used to send an 802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can
request a change at any time after the association.
B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on
their own experience of the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be
used by each client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will
use and the data rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer
station, based on the peer's experience of the RF link.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What answers correctly complete the following sentence?
____________ and ____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine whether the wireless
medium is idle or busy. (Choose 2)
A. Passive
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: C,E

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NO.12 What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes from one medium to another medium of
a different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

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NO.13 What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre-deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC's facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC's existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company's security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF medium for a
specified period of time?
A. Long slot times
B. DTIM Interval
C. Listen Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E

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NO.16 Given: You were previously on-site at ABC's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The
WLAN has been deployed according to your recommendations and you are on-site again to perform a
network validation.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be
performed? (Choose two)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Hidden node analysis to identify and relocate existing hidden nodes
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Answer: A,E

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NO.17 When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher passive
gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease?
A. Beamwidth
B. Range
C. Active gain
D. Receive sensitivity
E. Fresnel Zone size
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given: You are an independent contractor, hired to perform an indoor site survey and network design
for ABC Hotel. The network will support both hotel staff and guest users. You are interviewing the network
manager to determine business, performance, and security requirements for the future 802.11 WLAN.
What questions should you ask the IT manager? (Choose two)
A. What data cabling is currently installed in the rooms and throughout the hotel?
B. How much RF loss do you expect between hotel rooms?
C. Where are the RF dead zones located within the facility?
D. What types of applications will be used by the hotel staff?
E. Are there any radar systems in use at the hotel that would conflict with the WLAN?
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Answer: D

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NO.20 In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for
unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver's antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is
clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency
and distance.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: HT0-102
시험 이름: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
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Q&A: 220 문항
업데이트: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following devices will prevent the loss of functionality during a sudden alternating
current (AC) power outage?
A. Dedicated circuit
B. Surge protector
C. Transfer switch
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following does NOT need to be documented for a control system?
A. System diagram
B. Equipment list
C. Configuration of equipment
D. Equipment specifications
Answer: D

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NO.6 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

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NO.7 The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria?
A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following terms describes a point or group of points in an alarm system?
A. Zone
B. Area
C. Perimeter
D. Demarcation
Answer: A

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NO.10 An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed?
A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83
Answer: C

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NO.11 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following authorities establish the National Electrical Code (NEC) as legal
regulations?
A. Local fire marshal
B. Local governments
C. Building contractors
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B

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NO.14 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables?
A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray
Answer: C

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NO.17 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.18 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location?
A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: SY0-101
시험 이름: CompTIA (SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION)
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NO.1 A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)
B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.3 A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
Answer:A

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NO.4 WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
Answer: B

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NO.5 IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF

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NO.6 A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
Answer:A

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NO.9 The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The
MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
Answer:A

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NO.11 Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. verifies the validity of an email address.
B. corrupts the mail file.
C. wastes company bandwidth.
D. installs Trojan horse viruses.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.
D. NESSUS.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won't support the product if the latest version is not
installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be
enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Answer: D

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NO.14 In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.
E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE

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NO.15 A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of
the following security principles?
A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.17 A URL for an Internet site begins with 'https:' rather than 'http:' which is an indication that this web site
uses:
A. Kerberos.
B. PGP.
C. PKI.
D. SSL.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota.
Answer: DE

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NO.19 To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these
changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: EK0-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
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NO.1 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.3 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.4 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.6 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.9 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.12 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.13 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.15 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.16 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.18 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.19 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.20 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: JK0-701
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Essentials (2009 Edition) Exam)
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NO.1 Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz?
A. PC133
B. PC2700
C. PC3200
D. PC10600
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following broadband technologies provides the FASTEST bandwidth speeds?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. Fiber
Answer: D

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NO.3 802.11n has the potential to support up to:
A. 11Mbps.
B. 20Mbps.
C. 54Mbps.
D. 100Mbps.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following connectors are used for musical equipment?
A. DVI
B. MIDI
C. 6-pin mini-DIN
D. HDMI
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following IP ranges is Class C?
A. 192.0.0.0-223.255.255.255
B. 128.0.0.0-191.255.255.255
C. 1.1.1.1-126.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0-255.255.255.0
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following Windows utilities will identify issues with drivers and programs running under
Windows XP?
A. System Information
B. Hardware Compatibility List
C. Dr. Watson
D. Program Compatibility Wizard
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a
company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Inkjet
D. Dot Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the
external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem?
A. Upgrade the BIOS.
B. Release the LCD cutoff switch.
C. Toggle the WiFi switch.
D. Toggle the Fn key.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the laser printing process, which of the following is true?
A. A wax-based substance is melted and applied directly to the media.
B. Toner is applied to a photoconductor and transferred to the media.
C. Heat is applied to heat-sensitive media to create an image.
D. Toner is sprayed to the media.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Every time the computer starts a technician receives a message saying that the computer case has
been opened. Which of the following can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent this message from
appearing?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Intrusion detection
C. WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.11 A PC is having its PSU replaced and the new PSU has a connector that is too large for the
motherboard's socket. Which of the following is needed to solve this issue?
A. The PC needs a NLX to ATX adapter.
B. The PC needs a 26-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
C. The PC needs a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
D. The PC needs an AT-to-ATX adapter.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation?
A. Windows Key + L
B. CTRL + ALT + Delete
C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace
D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface that allows a
technician to edit startup services and applications?
A. msinfo32
B. cmd
C. dxdiag
D. msconfig
Answer: D

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NO.14 A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of
which of the following classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound?
A. VGA
B. S-Video
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: D

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NO.16 A technician is installing Windows Vista onto a new computer locally. Which of the following describes
the method the technician would MOST likely use?
A. Floppy
B. DVD
C. Blu-Ray
D. PXE
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following Windows Vista versions can be installed on a system with
512MB of RAM and a 40GB HDD?
A. Home Basic
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
D. Business
Answer: A

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NO.18 A CRT monitor is flickering very rapidly, making it very uncomfortable to view. This can be corrected
by:
A. Adjusting the refresh rate.
B. Adjusting the dot pitch.
C. Degaussing the monitor.
D. Adjusting the resolution.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following connector types is used on CAT5e cable?
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following wireless network features grants the ability to select which devices connect to a
wireless network based on a device's hardware address?
A. WPA encryption
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT translation
D. SSID broadcasting
Answer: B

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NO.21 A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which
of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this?
A. Bluetooth card
B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard
C. 802.11n WiFi card
D. Cellular WAN card
Answer: D

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NO.22 A technician downloads an updated version of the driver for a sound card in Windows XP. After
extracting the driver, how would the technician update the driver?
A. Device Manager> expand 'Sound, video and game controllers'>double click on the
name of the sound card> Troubleshoot'
B. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Update Drivers>double click on 'Sound Card'
C. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Sound Devices > 'Update Driver'
D. Device Manager>Driver tab> Update Driver> Double click on the name of the sound card under 'Sound,
video and game controllers'
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer's image stored on a hard drive?
A. Factory Recovery Partition
B. OEM Version
C. Recovery CD
D. Network Install
Answer: A

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NO.24 A technician is repairing a keyboard issue, in which the keys are not typing anything within document
editing software. After Questioning the user, the technician discovers that the user was eating lunch while
typing the document. The technician comes to the conclusion that liquid was spilled onto the keyboard.
According to the troubleshooting theory, which of the following would be the NEXT step to follow?
A. Ask the user open-ended Questions.
B. Make closing notes of the repair.
C. Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
D. Verify the system functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following media types is MOST affected by the RPM rating?
A. SDD
B. Flash
C. Tape
D. HDD
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling
process?
A. Heatsink
B. Fan
C. Liquid cooling system
D. Thermal compound
Answer: D

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NO.27 When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST
approach?
A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help.
B. Ask open-ended Questions to narrow the scope of the problem.
C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain.
D. Ask focused Questions that lead the customer with yes or no Answers.
Answer: B

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NO.28 A technician has determined that the primary hard drive has failed and the defective hard drive has
been replaced. According to the troubleshooting process, which of the following steps would come
NEXT?
A. Document the setting.
B. Establish a probable cause.
C. Verify full system operation.
D. Question the user.
Answer: C

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NO.29 A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed
some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted? FIRST?
A. Reset the CMOS
B. Rollback to a restore point
C. Boot into Safe Mode
D. Reconfigure the BIOS
Answer: B

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NO.30 A computer fails POST with 1 long, and 2 short beeps. Which of the following components has MOST
likely failed?
A. Sound card
B. Power supply
C. NIC
D. Video card
Answer: D

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NO.1 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.
This is an example of which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.2 A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than expected.
To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work overtime,
which will increase the cost of the project. Which of the following should be the NEXT
A. Ask the key stakeholder for more funding for the project.
B. Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project.
C. Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule.
D. Agree to complete the project using the new schedule.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: B

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NO.4 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:
A. methodology verification.
B. scope verification.
C. change verification.
D. system verification.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: A

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NO.8 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A. Team member compensation
B. Statement of Work (SOW)
C. Project needs assessment
D. Control limits
Answer: D

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NO.10 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A. Start-to-Finish
B. Finish-to-Start
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task. Which of the following should the project manager do?
A. Reassign the individual to another role on the project team.
B. Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best.
C. Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further.
D. Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.16 Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project warranty
C. Project process reports
D. Earned value calculations
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.18 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project
documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.21 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.22 A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system. Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
A. Conduct a feasibility study.
B. Determine the justification of the project.
C. Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee.
D. Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan.
Answer: C

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NO.23 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.24 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.25 A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor. This is an example of which of the following actions?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Audit review
D. Phase gate
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location.?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.28 In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A. Obtain funding for the project.
B. Provide quality review of the deliverables.
C. Provide leadership to the project team.
D. Obtain resolution of the application development Issues.
Answer: A

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NO.29 The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A. Contingency reserve
B. Project charter
C. Project schedule
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.30 A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships. Which of the following tools is the project manager using?
A. ADM
B. WBS
C. AON
D. PDM
Answer: A

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